Argumentation Ethics Entails Self Ownership From the Beginning of Life

Thank you Stephan Kinsella for your comments on my blog post about your approach to rights theory. I'm not proposing an alternative rights theory. I accept the same Hoppean rights theory as you. My point is that one assumption you make- that rights must be acquired- is an error and inconsistent with the rest of your own theory because the meta-ethical norms that determine rights logically entail self ownership from the very beginning of life. You can't have an indeterminate period where a human doesn't own their own body, and then somehow comes to own it. That's inconsistent with meta-ethical norms. They can't homestead it, as you yourself have noted. Also, one cannot have a consistent rule whereby others determine when a child attains self ownership by others choosing to recognise it, since that would be a rule allocating self ownership rights by fiat, not by objective rules. The only consistent, objective rule is the universal one that each individual has the best claim to their own body from the beginning.

Below is a response to your specific comments, but I welcome a discussion of this if you are open to it:

it's not clear what he disagrees with in my conclusion.

I disagree that an individual's self ownership right is only acquired once recognised by fiat by someone else at some vague and unspecified point in the early life of that individual. Human beings have rights from the moment that an individual human being exists. That is the only position consistent with the rest of Hoppe's (and your) rights theory.

Does he thinks that we do not have rights at all, or that we never acquire them?

Neither, obviously, since this is a false dilemma. I think we have rights from the moment we come into existence. If you really want, you could say we "acquire" rights when we "acquire" a body (at conception), but it would be incoherent to use that word in that context since nobody is obtaining rights for themselves in the same way that nobody obtains a body for themselves- we just have one from the start.

I'd be curious to see where he thinks my motivated reasoning was wrong, or what about it is incorrect other than how I got there.

Your presumption that rights are acquired conflicts with your own theory of rights (after Hoppe). Your theory has a number of clear implications that you yourself have set out:

  1. The individual with the best objective claim to a body is the body's inhabitant himself.
  2. One cannot homestead one's own body, since one has to have a body to do the homesteading. So you can't "acquire" ownership of yourself.
  3. If ownership only comes into effect because it is "recognised" at some point by someone else, that would be by fiat. Such a rule is not objective, not intersubjectively ascertainable, and would be conflict promoting (invalidating it as a norm).
  4. Any theory of rights must always give a definitive and intersubjectively ascertainable answer at any point in time as to who owns what. There cannot be any ambiguity otherwise it fails to prevent conflict (which is the whole point of rights).

The only rule that prevents conflict over scarce resources about body ownership is self ownership from the very beginning. Any rule which involves a human not owning themselves and then at some vague and ill-defined point owning themselves is inconsistent with all 4 above.

I think a case can be made for rights, that they have to do with our nature as rational agents, and so on.

Hoppe and you have already made a case for rights: rights are the rules humans use to avoid conflict over scarce resources. Why should we have rights? To avoid fighting. What if someone disagrees with rights? Then they are contradicting themselves in the very process of arguing that position. What if someone doesn't care about justification and just wants to fight? Then they are merely a practical problem and no discussion is necessary. What is missing from this "case" for rights that Hoppe and you have already made? You simply don't need this vague stuff about based on rationality. Argumentation ethics has given rights a far clearer justification.

You also don't seem to realise that the logical implication of basing rights on rationality is Peter Singer's position that newborn infanticide is legitimate because newborns are not rational actors, not cognitively capable, etc. If you argue for acquired rights on the basis of rationality/cognitive ability/language/etc, you must accept the legitimacy of infanticide as that is the logical implication of your position. This is openly recognised by the more consistent pro-choice philosophers. Some, like David Boonin, just uncomfortably acknowledge the problem and move along swiftly. Others, like Michael Tooley and Peter Singer, choose to bite the bullet and accept that one cannot deny the legitimacy of infanticide if one accepts the legitimacy of abortion. Your acquired rights argument logically entails this position.

I was talking to libertarians who already accept humans (a) have rights, and that (b) they must have them for some reason, and thus, (c) they must arise at some point.

There is no logical reason that we must presume that you come into existence without rights and then acquire them. That is just an unwarranted assumption.

If you want to deny humans have rights, that rights can be justified, or that aggression can be justified, or that we have right but never acquire them or that we have them for no reason at all…. okay, let's see it. Have at it.

Um what? Obviously I don't deny rights or support aggression. I agree with 99% of your views on rights, just not your argument that rights are acquired.

Rights are justified since denying them results in self contradiction. We have rights to avoid conflict with each other: that's the "reason". We can only avoid conflict if we start with the presumption of rights for everyone (and rights are only denied with due cause). It has to be a universal rule to be workable. So humans have rights from the moment an individual comes into existence. What's missing from that?

I do not know what he means that rights are inherent. Inherent in what? In being human? What about other forms of intelligent life?

Yes, of course inherent in being human. We are humans discussing this, trying to live together without conflict, so obviously we are talking about human rights. We are not debating with monkeys and sharks about how to come to a peaceable coexistence. Rights only arise as part of argumentation among humans about how to get along in a world of scarce resources without fighting. Inherent doesn't entail given by a god or anything, it just means rights must be presupposed for all humans who have not committed any crime.

So, yes, we are humans arguing about this, and we are making rules for humans. There are no donkeys or whales involved in this debate. The rules we agree for peaceful coexistence must be objective, i.e. intersubjectively ascertainable. It so happens that one must include all humans in these rules- they must be universal rules- to meet this criterion. So rights do apply to all humans, not just those engaging in the rational debate about rights. That includes humans when they are babies, foetuses, or zygotes.

Contrary to your assumption, this does not imply that intelligent aliens would not have rights. If we could negotiate with intelligent aliens about how to live in peace, then they would have rights. Again, this would mean that those rights would have to be universal, so the babies or eggs or nymphs, or whatever form undeveloped aliens take would have rights, even though those babies would not yet be developed enough to argue a syllogism and demonstrate rationality. Would you argue that only the adult aliens (the ones capable of reason) have rights? Would the baby aliens be fair game for us to hunt and kill? If not, then you're not really basing it on rationality, are you? You're basing it on membership of the species that contains members who are capable of agreeing objective property rights.

A Critique of Stephan Kinsella's Approach To Rights Theory

Stephan Kinsella has explained the thought process that led him to overturn the libertarian theory of Intellectual Property. Initially, he accepted the starting premise of almost all other libertarians that IP is valid. Pro-IP libertarians began with this premise and then looked for ways to justify it as a foregone conclusion, but Kinsella noticed that they only came up with bad arguments:

I still assumed IP rights were, somehow, legitimate property rights… So I dove deep into the literature and tried to find a way to justify IP rights, only to keep hitting dead ends. Every argument I could come up with was as flawed and shaky as Ayn Rand’s.

Kinsella then took a different approach. He explored the hypothesis that arguments for IP are weak because IP is incompatible with libertarian theory. This was a decisive step in coming up with a different approach:

No wonder I had been failing in my attempts: I had been trying to justify the unjustifiable!

Rather than prejudging the conclusion and looking for supportive arguments, he identified sound arguments and then accepted whatever conclusion those arguments led to. The result was that he corrected a long-held error in libertarian theory and showed that IP is invalid.

The Problem Of Motivated Reasoning

Pro-IP libertarians were using motivated reasoning when thinking about IP. They knew the conclusion they were supposed to reach and tried to retrofit their arguments to it. Kinsella did not use motivated reasoning, so he was able to come to a sound conclusion.

I give this background because I now want to point out that Kinsella explicitly uses motivated reasoning when it comes to his theory of acquired rights and his dismissal of the theory of inherent rights. As can be seen from the title of Kinsella's main article on the origin of rights, "How We Come To Own Ourselves", he starts out with the assumption that rights must be acquired at some point rather than being inherent: Kinsella says we "come to" own ourselves. Given this assumption, he thinks that the only remaining question to answer is exactly when rights acquisition takes place.

In this way, Kinsella has prejudged the validity of acquired rights theory much like the pro-IP libertarians prejudged the validity of IP. He openly admits to using motivated reasoning when thinking about rights theory and does not seem to be aware of any problem with the admission. He says:

we know the endpoints: zygotes have no rights; adult humans do. Somewhere in between we develop rights.

How does Kinsella know the end points? He prejudged them. This reasoning would be equivalent to saying "we know IP is valid, now we just need better arguments to show why." This approach cannot lead to a sound conclusion.

If Kinsella used the same approach to rights theory as he did to IP, he would instead start with the premise that for any rights theory to be valid, it must be compatible with sound meta-ethical principles derived from the logic of argument. He would then evaluate theories of inherent vs acquired rights against this criterion. The conclusion would be whatever is supported by the arguments.

Ironically, Kinsella believes that advocates of inherent rights are themselves the ones using motivated reasoning. He thinks one would only claim that rights are inherent in deference to religious dogma. He does not seem able to imagine that there could be secular arguments for inherent rights. However, there are lifelong atheists who have concluded– for entirely secular reasons– that rights are inherent. I am one of them.

Pointing out that Kinsella has used motivated reasoning does not constitute a detailed critique of his arguments for acquired rights or a defence of inherent rights theory (although that may be a topic for a future post). My goal in this post is just to point out the overall problem in the way that he has approached the question until now. I hope Kinsella will rethink the question of inherent vs acquired rights without prejudging the conclusion.

Parental Obligations Stem from Causal Action, Not Mere Biology

One theory of parental obligations holds that the biological relatedness of parent to child is the basis for parental obligations. This view holds that parents have enforceable positive obligations simply because they are biological parents. In his article Abortion and Parental Obligation, Andrew J. Peach makes this argument citing Stephen Schwarz's book The Moral Question of Abortion:

Following Schwarz, then, I will be defending the theses that the being in the womb is a person from conception and that, contrary to Thomson, parents simply by virtue of the biological relationship do have a special responsibility to this being. Although voluntary sexual intercourse is the means by which virtually all conception takes place, Schwarz is arguing that it is the biological bond between parents and children itself that grounds the obligation. In other words, the act of sexual intercourse is not in itself the ground of the obligation; it is merely the act that brought about the existence of the child who is biologically connected to the parents. So, it is not so much the choice to have sex that obligates a couple as it is the reality, the relationship, that is brought about by that choice.

Peach argues in a footnote that a “biological bond” exists "between the parents as the natural authors of the child—their sperm and egg that unite to form this new human being," and that this bond "is really the crucial one for determining parental obligation."

This is not quite right. Parental obligation arises from the voluntary act of making one's gametes available for fertilization—whether through sexual intercourse, which entails the inherent possibility of fertilization, or through assisted reproductive technologies such as IVF. In both cases, the gamete providers bear ultimate causal responsibility for the creation of a child in a state of peril. Therefore, both the mother and father are causally obligated to remove the child from the state of peril by raising him to the safety of adulthood.

James Lindemann Nelson explains why this act creates causal obligation:

The making available of one's gametes is an act highly proximate to conception, and, in concert with the other parent's actions, is jointly sufficient for it. Our practice is generally to take proximity and sufficiency pretty seriously; a pair of coordinated actions which were proximate to and jointly sufficient for some event, and were not the result of forcing or fraudulent action on the part of others would be hard not to see as the cause of the event in question. Becoming a parent generally fits this model.

Peach is correct that it is not merely the act of sex that creates obligation, but he is mistaken in attributing the obligation to biology alone. It is action that creates parental obligations. Sex involves the act of making one's gametes available for fertilization. Obligation comes from the reasonably foreseeable consequences of this act.

Does a rape victim have parental obligations?

The huge difference between the causal theory and the biological theory is in the question of parental obligations for rape victims. Peach acknowledges an important logical implication of the biological theory:

If the biological bond is the true ground of parental obligations, then women who are raped also have maternal obligations because, as a point of fact, they are mothers; the same biological bond exists between the woman and child in the case of rape as exists between a woman and child of a voluntary conception. As Schwarz explains in regard to the woman who has conceived due to rape: “The child is her child; this remains true even when the child is conceived in violent intercourse and forced on her. The reality of the child as a person, and as entrusted to the woman as her mother, remains fully intact. The woman may not get rid of the child if this means child neglect, still less if it means killing, as in abortion.”

There is a lot to unpack here. Firstly, there are two arguments at stake:

  1. Does a rape victim have parental obligations?
  2. Is abortion justified in cases of rape?

Since Peach and Schwarz are concerned to argue against abortion, they both address these two questions only in connection with each other. But these are two independent questions.

Addressing the first question, unlike the biological theory, the causal theory of parental obligations does not imply that a rape victim has parental obligations. A rape victim did not act to make her gametes available for fertilization; she was coerced into doing so by an invasive act of aggression. Therefore, a rape victim does not have parental obligations to any resultant child.

The case of rape highlights the absence of a compelling argument for the biological theory of obligation. Why should biology alone impose parental obligations in cases of rape? Schwarz and Peach argue that the resulting child is "entrusted to the woman as its mother." The passive voice in "entrusted" leaves unclear who is doing the entrusting. Is it anyone in particular, or society at large, or God? It seems likely that they are making a religious argument.

It is true that abortion is incompatible with parental obligations in cases of consensual sex, but not in cases of rape. However, although a rape victim does not have parental obligations, it does not necessarily follow that abortion is justified in such cases. Peach and Schwarz could argue that abortion is not legitimate in such cases on other grounds. In trying to argue that it is parental obligation which makes abortion impermissible in cases of rape, they are forced to rely on a biological theory of obligation that ultimately lacks any philosophical justification.

Children Do Not Have Obligations to Their Parents

Recently when I presented the argument that parents have enforceable positive obligations to their children, someone asked whether children have similar obligations to their parents. Do parents have an enforceable claim against their children according to a libertarian legal order?

The short answer is no. Children owe their parents the negative obligation not to initiate aggression against them, just as they owe this to all others. They do not owe their parents any positive obligations, such as the provision of care in their parents' old age.

There are no legitimate unchosen positive obligations. Legitimate obligations only arise as a result of one's actions. One must also accept as "chosen” those obligations that come from the unintended but reasonably foreseeable consequences of one's actions. This responsibility for the consequences of one's actions is the basis of the positive obligations that parents have to their children.

However, a child has not acted in any way that gives rise to positive obligations to his parents. Children are brought into life without action on their part. The actions that created a child were undertaken by his parents. Children do not (and cannot) consent to their relationship with their parents. That relationship is something that is put upon them without agreement. Therefore, there are no grounds for parents to have any claim against their children for positive obligations.

Those that argue children have obligations to their parents must argue that there are legitimate unchosen positive obligations. Here is an example of the argument from Andrew J. Peach:

it is generally acknowledged that relationships and circumstances give rise to obligations that are quite independent of the wishes of the people involved in those relationships and circumstances. For example, children (simply in virtue of being children) have special responsibilities toward their parents, especially during the latter’s twilight years. Children who do not make special allowances for their elderly parents, by providing emotional, financial, or physical support or just being generally solicitous of their well-being, are as unjust as they are ungrateful.

Peach is correct that people can have obligations "independent of [their] wishes", but there is something missing in his account. One cannot acquire positive obligations independent of one's actions. A father who does not wish to have the responsibility of being a parent still has a rightful obligation to his child because of the father's actions. He had sex, which is an act that has the reasonably foreseeable risk of creating a child, even when that was unintended. However, that same man does not have a legitimate obligation towards children that he did not father, since he did not act in any way that would lead to such an obligation.

Peach does not justify the unchosen obligations, he just takes it as given ("generally acknowledged") that they exist. That's because there is no logical basis for justifying such obligations.

I wonder if those who think children have positive obligations to their parents argue that such obligations are enforceable. Should parents be able to use the law to make their children pay for their care in old age? What could possibly be the basis to justify such a claim?

Here's another question: if parents had been negligent or abusive to their children, would the children still owe them obligations? Parents are obliged to look after their kids no matter how badly their kids behave towards them because that obligation results from the parents own actions. But I wonder if those who think that children have an obligation to their parents would also argue that such obligations are independent of how badly the parents treated the kids?

The only answer that makes sense of all this to me is that children do not have positive obligations to their parents. I wrote more about this topic in my response to Harry Browne's letter to his daughter.

Having established that there is no justification for grown children to have an obligation to their parents, what about a child's obligations during childhood? Does a child have an obligation to obey his parents? In some conditions, yes. A parent must sometimes act paternalistically (against the expressed wishes of the child) in order to fulfil his obligations. For example, if a child wants to walk across town in the middle of the night, a parent may justly prevent him from doing so for his own protection. This logically entails that in such cases a child should obey his parents. In this sense, a child does have a positive obligation to his parents. But this is not an enforceable obligation: a libertarian legal system could not enact just laws against children failing to comply with their parents. So a child may have a moral obligation to obey in such cases, but not an enforceable one.

Furthermore, it should be clear that a child does not have any obligation to obey his parents in situations where they are aggressing against him. Any action against the child's consent that cannot be reasonably justified as necessary in fulfilment of parental obligations to remove the child from peril is not something a child has a moral obligation to obey.

Defence of Abortion Entails Defence of Infanticide

All arguments used to justify abortion also logically justify infanticide. Pro-abortion arguments such as that rights are acquired rather than inherent, as well as the numerous criteria that have been suggested to qualify for rights (such as achieving a level of rationality or certain physiological characteristics), all apply just as equally to newborn infanticide as they do to abortion.

This means that a defence of abortion logically entails a defence of infanticide. You cannot choose to defend abortion and not defend infanticide without contradiction. This is a matter of fact that influential pro-abortion philosophers explicitly accept. Here are some examples.

In Practical Ethics (1979), Peter Singer readily admits to the logical connection between arguments for abortion and infanticide:

liberals usually hold that it is permissible to kill an embryo or fetus but not a baby. I have argued that the life of a fetus (and even more plainly, of an embryo) is of no greater value than the life of a nonhuman animal at a similar level of rationality, self-awareness, capacity to feel and so on, and that because no fetus is a person, no fetus has the same claim to life as a person. Now we have to face the fact that these arguments apply to the newborn baby as much as to the fetus. A week-old baby is not a rational and self-aware being, and there are many nonhuman animals whose rationality, self-awareness, capacity to feel and so on, exceed that of a human baby a week or a month old. If, for the reasons I have given, the fetus does not have the same claim to life as a person, it appears that the newborn baby does not either. Thus, although my position on the status of fetal life may be acceptable to many, the implications of this position for the status of newborn life are at odds with the virtually unchallenged assumption that the life of a newborn baby is as sacrosanct as that of an adult… I do not regard the conflict between the position I have taken and widely accepted views about the sanctity of infant life as a ground for abandoning my position.

In Abortion and Infanticide (1983), Philosopher Michael Tooley acknowledges that pro-choice arguments are pro-infanticide arguments and he knows that this is a "difficult issue" to accept:

Most current discussions of abortion tend to treat it in isolation from the question of the morality of  infanticide. One of the central contentions to be advanced here is that it is very difficult indeed to arrive at a defensible position on abortion unless one is prepared to come to terms with the difficult issue of the moral status of infanticide.

David Boonin's 1998 book A Defense of Abortion evaluates various arguments in terms of how "attractive" they are to those wanting to defeat rights-based arguments against abortion. Having rejected one suggestion, he considers whether to defend abortion by defending infanticide, but decides that this is not "attractive" since to acknowledge that abortion is on a par with infanticide would delegitimise it:

A defender of abortion …. could agree that you and I have a right to life but deny that newborn infants do. If newborn infants do not have a right to life, then it will again be a simple matter to establish that fetuses lack such a right, and the rights-based argument against abortion will again be defeated. This suggestion is likely to strike most readers as hardly more attractive than the first. In the popular debate about abortion, at least, to say that abortion is morally on a par with killing newborn babies is simply to say that abortion is morally impermissible.

Having accepted that abortion may be on a par with infanticide and that, if so, this would lead many to consider abortion unjustifiable, Boonin chooses to simply ignore this problem without providing any defence or argument:

A number of philosophers, including such prominent figures as Peter Singer and Michael Tooley, have argued that human infants do not have a right to life. And these arguments deserve to be taken seriously on their own terms. But they need not be taken seriously here. For the purposes of this book, arguments for the claim that human infants do not have a right to life can simply be set aside.

Whereas Singer and Tooley at least accepted the logical consequences of their pro-abortion arguments openly, Boonin is less honest. He chooses to "set aside" those logical consequences of his argument that he knows many will find horrific.

The Inconsistency of Pro-Abortion Libertarians

A few oddballs calling themselves libertarians have openly argued for both a pro- abortion and pro-infanticide position. In his 1895 article L'Enfant Terrible, Benjamin Tucker accepted that if one considers abortion justified then one also considers killing a newborn infant justified:

If, then, the child is the mother's while in the womb, by what consideration does the title to it become vested in another than the mother on its emergence from the womb and pending the day of its emancipation? I think that no valid consideration can be shown; and if such is the case, then it is established that the unemancipated child is the property of its mother, of which, by an obvious corollary, she may dispose as freely as she may dispose of any other property belonging to her.

In a 2019 article Abortion and Infanticide a Triple Libertarian and Critical-Rationalist Defence, Jan Lester argues for "the moral permissibility of the abortion and infanticide of unwanted humans" and states that "abortion and infanticide are, in themselves, morally neutral". Although the mind boggles at how anyone can evince such a profound level of moral bankrupcy, he is nonetheless correct when he states that the two positions are inseparable:

It is common, however, for people to accept some versions of these arguments as applied to abortion but reject them as regards infanticide. And that is simply to be logically inconsistent.

Yet this is not the usual stance of pro-choice libertarians. Most libertarian defenders of abortion want to hold the untenable position that abortion is valid but infanticide is not. A common way of attempting to square this circle is to argue that a baby in utero is some kind of aggressor by way of trespass, but this position relies on an unjustifiable denial of causal parental responsibility.

Libertarians who have attempted justifications of this kind include Murray Rothbard, Williamson Evers, and Walter Block. Rothbard's determination to deny causal parental obligations led him to argue the odd position that infanticide is justified if by deliberate starvation but not if by physical assault.

Most other pro-abortion libertarians fail to grapple with the logical implication of their view when it comes to infanticide. Unlike Benjamin Tucker and Jan Lester who say the quiet part out loud– openly advocating infanticide– pro-abortion libertarians usually either ignore their own inconsistency by not talking about infanticide or declare arbitrarily that they do not support it (despite supporting abortion).

If you are pro-abortion, at least have the honesty to accept the logical consequence: all your arguments for abortion also justify infanticide.